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Indian Polity & Constitution MCQs

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Indian Polity & Constitution Objective / Multiple Choice (MCQs) Questions for Preparation of SSC-CGL, UPSC Civil Services, NDA, CDS, Railways and State Level Public Services Examinations

1.Which among the following is the official language of Union Territory of Lakshadweep ?

[A] Tamil
[B] Malayalam
[C] Great Andamanese
[D] Sinhala

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Malayalam] Notes:
Official Languages of Lakshdweep are Malayalam and English, while there are two spoken languages also viz. Jeseri and Dhivehi.

2.The Official Languages Act 1963 provided that _______?

[A] Hindi is only official language of India
[B] Use of English to be continued in addition to Hindi for Official Purpose
[C] Special status to English
[D] All the above

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Use of English to be continued in addition to Hindi for Official Purpose] Notes:
English was the only language used for official purpose in the British India. In the independent India, it was declared in Article 343 (1) that Hindi will be the official Union language. It was also mentioned that over a period of fifteen years since the commencement of the Indian Constitution, Hindi will replace English as the official language. However, the Parliament can decide whether to use English as an official language or not.
The non-Hindi speaking communities across the country protested on the aspect of the change in official language from English to Hindi. This protest resulted in the enactment of the Official Language Act, 1963. According to the act, Hindi in Devanagari script has been declared the official language of the Union. However, English may also be used for official purposes even after 1965. English has been given the status of the ‘subsidiary official language’ of India. It was decided that either Hindi or English can be used for procedures of Parliament.

3.Which among the following is correct regarding Directive Principles?

[A] Positive Injunctions
[B] Negative Injunctions
[C] Justifiable Injunctions
[D] None of the above

Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Positive Injunctions] Notes:
While fundamental rights are in effect negative injunctions to state in certain matters, Directive Principles are positive injunctions / instructions to the state to work for attainment of objective of a welfare state.

4.The uniform civil code which has been recommended in the directive principles is to ensure which of the following?

[A] National Integration
[B] Economic Equality
[C] Fundamental Rights
[D] Fundamental duties

Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [National Integration] Notes:
The Uniform Civil Code calls for the formulation of one law for India, which would be applicable to all religious communities in matters such as divorce, marriage, adoption, and inheritance. It will ensure National integration among the citizens.

5.If there is a dispute in the presidential election it will be referred whom among the following?

[A] Chief Election Commissioner
[B] Supreme Court
[C] Parliament
[D] Vice President

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Supreme Court] Notes:
According to Article 71 of the Indian Constitution, all doubts and disputes regarding the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India.

6.Which Constitutional Amendment gave Right to Education to children in India?

[A] 86th
[B] 90th
[C] 91st
[D] 97th

Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [86th] Notes:
Constitution (86th) Amendment Act, 2002 made elementary education a fundamental right in India. It added new article Article 21-A which declared that State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may determine. It also changed the subject matter of Article 45 in DPSP which now read – State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.. It also added a new fundamental duty under Article 51-A which reads – It shall be the duty of every citizen of India who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

7.How many Former Presidents have been awarded “Bharat Ratna” till now?

[A] 2
[B] 3
[C] 6
[D] 5

Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [6] Notes:
The following six presidents of India have been awarded Bharat Ratna till date:
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
Rajendra Prasad
Zakir Hussain,
A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
Dr. V V Giri
Pranab Mukherjee

8.Power to dissolve Lok Sabha is vested with ?

[A] Prime Minister
[B] Council of Ministers
[C] President
[D] Lok Sabha Speaker

Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [President] Notes:
The President of India has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha. He can dissolve Lok Sabha and call a General Election before five years is up.

9.In which case, Supreme court held that any Constitutional amendment that takes away or abridges a Fundamental Right conferred by Part III is void?

[A] SR Bommai Vs. Union of India, 1994
[B] Kesavananda Bharati Vs. State of Kerala (1973)
[C] Golaknath v. State of Punjab, 1967
[D] Minerva Mills v. Union of India, 1980

Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Golaknath v. State of Punjab, 1967] Notes:
In Golaknath v. State of Punjab case, the Supreme Court held that an amendment of the Constitution is a legislative process, and that an amendment under article 368 is “law” within the meaning of article 13 of the Constitution and therefore, if an amendment “takes away or abridged” a Fundamental Right conferred by Part III, it is void.

10.Which among the following was the first state in India where emergency was imposed due to failure of Constitutional Machinery of the state?

[A] Kerala
[B] Bombay
[C] Punjab
[D] Uttar Pradesh

Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Punjab] Notes:
Punjab was the first state in India where emergency was imposed due to failure of Constitutional Machinery of the state.

11.The 8th schedule of Constitution of India, originally had how many languages?

[A] 12
[B] 14
[C] 16
[D] 22

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [14] Notes:
The Constitution listed fourteen languages — Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu — in Eighth Schedule, in 1950.
Since then, the list has been expanded thrice, once to include Sindhi, second time to include Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali and yet again to add four more languages — Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and Dogri — bringing total to 22 scheduled languages. The claims of many more languages for inclusion are under consideration.

12.Which of the following Constitution Amendment Act grants citizens a fundamental right to form cooperative societies?

[A] 95th
[B] 96th
[C] 97th
[D] 98th

Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [97th] Notes:
Constitution (97th) Amendment Act, 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies. This amendment made the following three changes in the constitution:

It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19).
It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on the promotion of co-operative societies (Article 43-B).
It added a new Part IX-B in the constitution which is entitled as “The Co-operative societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).

13.How many times a person can be elected as the President of India?

[A] No bar
[B] One time
[C] Two times
[D] Three times

Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [No bar] Notes:
The tenure of the president of India is 5 years. There is no restriction on the number of times the president can be re-elected.

14.Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?

[A] According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal system
[B] 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
[C] Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission
[D] Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women] Notes:
According to the 73rd Amendment Act 1993, under Article 243D, not less than 1/3rd i.e. 33% seats should be reserved for women in local bodies.

15.Which of the following acts introduced the principle of constitutional autocracy?

[A] Indian Councils Act, 1891
[B] Government of India Act, 1919
[C] Government of India act, 1935
[D] Independence of India Act, 1947

Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Government of India act, 1935] Notes:
Constitutional autocracy introduced by the Government of India Act, 1935 vested the executive authority of provinces in the Governors and of the center, in the Governor-General on behalf of the Crown.

16.Which article of the Indian Constitution reflects that its Constitution is neither rigid nor flexible but a synthesis of both?

[A] Article 350
[B] Article 362
[C] Article 368
[D] Article 344

Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Article 368] Notes:
A constitution is considered rigid if it requires a special procedure for its amendment. On the other hand, a flexible constitution can be amended in the same manner as the ordinary laws are made. Article 368 provides for two types of amendments. Some provisions can be amended with a simple majority while some require a special majority.

17.Which of the following is not a compulsory condition for the termination of Indian citizenship by the Central government?

[A] the citizen has obtained citizenship by fraud
[B] the citizen has been involved in illegal trade
[C] the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India
[D] the citizen has been residing out of India for five years

Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [the citizen has been residing out of India for five years] Notes:
The citizenship of a person is compulsorily terminated by the Central Government of India if he has been residing out of India for seven years continuously. The citizenship is also terminated if he has been imprisoned in a country for two years within five years after registration or naturalization.

18.What makes Directive Principles of State Policy different from Fundamental Rights?

[A] Directive Principles are not enforceable whereas Fundamental Rights can be enforced
[B] Former is for the Union and latter is for state government
[C] Former is part of the Constitution whereas later is not
[D] None of the above

Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Directive Principles are not enforceable whereas Fundamental Rights can be enforced] Notes:
Directive Principles of State Policy are non-justiciable in nature whereas Fundamental Rights are enforceable under Article 32 and Article 226 of the Constitution of India. Both form a part of the Constitution of India.

19.Which of the following was not added to the Directive Principles by the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution?

[A] Participation of workers in the management of industries
[B] Equal justice and free legal aid to the poor
[C] Uniform civil code
[D] Protection of children and youth from exploitation

Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Uniform civil code] Notes:
In the following, except Uniform Civil Code, all were added by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India. Article 39 A asks the state to promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor. Preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse is covered in Article 39 (f) and Article 43 A secures the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).

20.Which Amendment Act added the ninth schedule to the Constitution of India?

[A] First Amendment
[B] Second Amendment
[C] Eighth Amendment
[D] Ninth Amendment

Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [First Amendment] Notes:
The first Constitution Amendment Act of 1951 added two new Articles 31 (a) and 31 (b) and 9th schedule to the Constitution for the protection of agrarian reforms in certain States.

21.Which of the following statements are correct regarding the promulgation of ordinances in the state?

[A] Governor can promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session
[B] Governor can withdraw an ordinance anytime
[C] Both of them
[D] None of them

Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Both of them ] Notes:
An ordinance can be promulgated by the Governor when the state legislature is not in session. However, such an ordinance has to be approved by the state legislature within six weeks from its reassembly. The Governor can also withdraw an ordinance when required.

22.Which article contains special provisions with respect to the state of Arunachal Pradesh?

[A] 371-G
[B] 371-H
[C] 371-I
[D] None of the above

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [371-H] Notes:
Under Article 371-H of the Constitution of India special provisions are made for the state of Arunachal Pradesh. The Governor of Arunachal Pradesh also has a special responsibility for law and order in the state.

23.What is the duration of office of a municipality reconstituted after premature dissolution?

[A] Full period of five years
[B] Remainder of the period
[C] Six months
[D] None of the above

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Remainder of the period] Notes:
A municipality reconstituted after premature dissolution remains in office only for the remainder of the period. In case the remainder of the period is less than six months, then it is not necessary to hold fresh elections for the formation of a new municipality for the given period.

24.In which chapter of the Model Code of Conduct the rules that political parties must follow while making poll-time promises in their election manifestos are enumerated?

[A] Chapter V
[B] Chapter VI
[C] Chapter VII
[D] Chapter VIII

Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Chapter VIII] Notes:
The chapter VIII of the Model Code of Conduct contains the rules that political parties must follow while making poll-time promises in their election manifestos. It is titled ‘Guidelines on Election Manifestos’.

25.As per the Government of India Act of 1935, who of the following was made the fulcrum of the constitution?

[A] Secretary of State for India
[B] Governor-general
[C] Board of control
[D] Court of Directors

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Governor-general] Notes:
As per the Government of India Act of 1935, the Governor-general was made the fulcrum of the constitution. The Governor-general was responsible for all matters and all conflicting elements.

26.Who is the current Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog?

[A] Amitabh Kant
[B] Ramesh Chand
[C] Rajiv Kumar
[D] Vinod Paul

Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Rajiv Kumar] Notes:
Dr. Rajiv Kumar who is also an Indian economist, is the Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog appointed by the government of India. He is the author of several books on India’s economy and national security.

27.Who has the right to make provisions for the incorporation, regulation and winding-up of co-operative societies?

[A] Lok Sabha
[B] Rajya Sabha
[C] Parliament
[D] State Legislature

Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [State Legislature] Notes:
The state legislature in India is empowered to make provisions for the incorporation, regulation and winding-up of co-operative societies based on the principles of voluntary formation, democratic member control, member economic participation and autonomous functioning.

28.The 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 empowered which of the following to specify the socially and educationally backward classes in relation to a state or union territory?

[A] Parliament
[B] President
[C] Governor
[D] Prime Minister

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [President] Notes:
The 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 to the Indian Constitution empowered the President of India to specify the socially and educationally backward classes in relation to a state or union territory.

29.Which of the following sections of IPC talks about offences related to religion?

[A] Sections 268 to 294
[B] Sections 295 to 298
[C] Sections 299 to 377
[D] Sections 378 to 462

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Sections 295 to 298] Notes:
Sections 295 to 298 of the Indian Penal Code talk about offences related to religion. The section talks about injuring or defiling the place of worship with intent to insult the religion of any class.

30.The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act was passed in which year?

[A] 2002
[B] 2003
[C] 2004
[D] 2005

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [2003] Notes:
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act or the FRBM Act was enacted in the year 2003. The purpose was to institutionalize financial discipline, reduce India’s fiscal deficit and to improve macroeconomic management.

31.Which act makes it mandatory for any association of the individuals calling itself a political party to make an application to the Election Commission for registration as a political party within 30 days following the date of its formation?

[A] Representation of People Act, 1950
[B] Representation of People Act, 1951
[C] Representation of People Act, 1952
[D] Representation of People Act, 1953

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Representation of People Act, 1951] Notes:
The Representation of People Act, 1951 makes it mandatory for any association of individuals calling itself a political party to make an application to the Election Commission of India for registration as a political party within 30 days following the date of its formation.

32.The chairman of Union Public Service Commission submits his resignation to?

[A] Chief Justice of India
[B] President
[C] Vice-President
[D] Prime Minister

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [President] Notes:
The chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission can relinquish their offices at any time by addressing their resignation to the President. They can also be removed before the expiry of their term by the President in the manner as provided in the Constitution of India.

33.According to National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) a child is defined as any person in the age group of?

[A] 0-6
[B] 0-14
[C] 0-16
[D] 0-18

Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [0-18] Notes:
According to the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR), which was set up in the year 2007, a child is defined as any person in the age group of 0 to 18 years.

34.The advocate general of the state submits his resignation to which of the following?

[A] President
[B] Governor
[C] Chief Minister
[D] Speaker

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Governor] Notes:
The Advocate General of the state may quit from his office by submitting his resignation to the governor of the state. Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.

35.What is the limitation period for filing complaints under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013?

[A] 5
[B] 3
[C] 7
[D] 1

Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [7] Notes:
One major drawback of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 is that the limitation period for filing complaints is 7 years.

36.Where is the Forest Research Institute located?

[A] Raipur
[B] Jodhpur
[C] Dehradun
[D] Chennai

Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Dehradun] Notes:
The Forest Research Institute is located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand. The Forest Research Institute (FRI) is an institute of the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education.

37.Reserved Forest is notified under which section of the Indian Forest Act, 1927?

[A] Section 14
[B] Section 17
[C] Section 20
[D] Section 23

Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Section 20] Notes:
Reserved Forest is notified under Section 20 of the Indian Forest Act, which was enacted in the year 1927 or under the reservation provisions of the Forest acts of the State Governments.

38.The method of Impeachment of the President of India is adopted from which country?

[A] U.S.A.
[B] U.K.
[C] U.S.S.R.
[D] France

Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [U.S.A.] Notes:
The Indian Constitution has borrowed some features from the U.S Constitution. Those features are: fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the president, removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges and the post of Vice-President.

39.The concept of “Rule of Law” is a special feature of the constitutional system of which country?

[A] Britain
[B] U.S.A.
[C] France
[D] Switzerland

Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Britain] Notes:
The Rule of Law is an aspect of the British Constitution that has been emphasized by A V Dicey and, therefore, can be considered an important part of British Politics. It involves: the rights of individuals are determined by legal rules and not the arbitrary behavior of authorities; there can be no punishment unless a court decides there has been a breach of law; and everyone, regardless of your position in society, is subject to the law.

40.Which of the following attributes in the Preamble states that ‘No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior’?

[A] Justice
[B] Liberty
[C] Equality
[D] Fraternity

Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Fraternity] Notes:
The feature of ‘FRATERNITY’ in the Indian constitution assures the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation. According to it, all of us should behave as if we are members of the same family. No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.

41.Who among the following declares National Emergency in India?

[A] President
[B] Prime Minister
[C] Central Council of Ministers
[D] Supreme Court of India

Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [President] Notes:
According to Article 352(1), the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion. Article 352(3) adds that the President can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet.

42.In Lok Sabha, who CANNOT vote in the first instance during voting?

[A] Speaker
[B] Cabinet Ministers
[C] Member of Lok Sabha
[D] None of these

Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Speaker] Notes:
The speaker of Lok Sabha does not vote in the first instance. But he can exercise a casting vote in the case of a tie. In other words, only when the House is divided equally on any question, the Speaker is entitled to vote. Such vote is called casting vote, and its purpose is to resolve a deadlock.

43.Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides for the formation of a new state?

[A] Article 1
[B] Article 3
[C] Article 2
[D] Article 9

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Article 3] Notes:
Article-3 of Indian Constitution addresses the topic of ‘Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States’. It says; Parliament may by law (a) form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State; (b) increase the area of any State; (c) diminish the area of any State; (d) alter the boundaries of any State; (e) alter the name of any State.

44.What is the plural voting system?

[A] Candidates themselves cast more than one vote
[B] Only the higher officials cast more than one votes.
[C] Eligible voter exercises one vote and some voters with specific qualifications cast more than one vote.
[D] All the citizens cast three votes each.

Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Eligible voter exercises one vote and some voters with specific qualifications cast more than one vote.] Notes:
Plural voting is the practice whereby one person might be able to vote multiple times in an election. This was a common aspect of the franchise for elections held in the 1800s where the right to vote was linked to the ownership of property; an elector could vote in as many districts as the elector owned property. This was the prevalent system in Britain before 1948 when certain electors could vote in more than one constituency.

45.Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

[A] ADM Jabalpur case-Rights of citizens under emergency
[B] Indira Sawhney case-Rights of women at work
[C] Vishakha case-Centre-State relations
[D] Kartar Singh case-Rights of minorities

Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [ADM Jabalpur case-Rights of citizens under emergency] Notes:
Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees the right to life and liberty. However, during internal emergency (1975-77), the Right to move to the court to enforce Article 21 was suspended under Article 359 of the Constitution. ADM Jabalpur Vs Shiv Kant Shukla AIR 1976, also known as the Habeas Corpus case, dealt with this question.

46.Which constitutional amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right?

[A] 41st
[B] 43rd
[C] 44th
[D] 42nd

Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [44th] Notes:
The Indian Constitution does not recognize the property right as a fundamental right. In the year 1977, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right. However, in another part of the Constitution, Article 300 (A) was inserted to affirm that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. The result is that the right to property as a fundamental right is now substituted as a statutory right.

47.The first woman film star nominated to the Rajya Sabha was?

[A] Nargis Dutt
[B] Shabana Azmi
[C] Madhubala
[D] Meena Kumari

Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Nargis Dutt] Notes:
Nargis Dutt, born Fatima Rashid but known by her screen name, Nargis, was an Indian film actress. In the early 1970s, she became the first patron of the Spastics Society of India, and her subsequent work with the organization brought her recognition as a social worker and later a Rajya Sabha nomination in 1980.

48.Which type of government is based on free and fair election where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing?

[A] Democratic
[B] Autocratic
[C] Monarchic
[D] Authoritarian

Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Democratic] Notes:
A democratic government is based on a free and fair election where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing. Democracy is based on a fundamental principle of political equality. In a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote, and each vote must have one value.

49.Which factor is necessary for the development of democratic institutions?

[A] Strong military forces
[B] Respect for individual rights
[C] A one–party system
[D] An agricultural economy

Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Respect for individual rights] Notes:
Respect for individual rights is one of the prerequisites for the development of democratic institutions. Examples of individual rights include the right to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness. Individual rights and democracy are mutually reinforcing.

50.Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

  1. In federal government, power is distributed among the legislature, executive and judiciary.
  2. Due to political competition in a democracy, social divisions get reflected in politics.
  3. Communal politics is based on the belief that one religion is superior to that of others
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3

Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [1, 2 & 3] Notes:
The distinguishing feature of a federal government is that power is distributed among the legislature, executive, and judiciary. Each branch has its own powers and responsibilities. In a democracy, social divisions are reflected in politics in many ways: Political parties make different promises to different communities during an election for votes. In elections, people tend to vote on the basis of social divisions. They vote for the candidate of their community in the hope that he will look after their interest in a better way than the candidate belonging to another community. The problems of religious communalism arise when followers of one religion try to project their religion as superior to that of others. It also arises when people of a religion form religious groups to counter another or when religion is used in politics in an exclusive and partisan manner.

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